KAPS exam sample Material Test 2 Paper 2

This KAPS Quiz contains older questions to help you practise. These questions are no longer used, but they’ll help you understand:

the types of content covered in each paper of the exam
how questions might be presented

If you want to practise the sample papers under exam conditions, you’ll need to answer all 100 questions in each paper in 2 hours.

KAPS Exam scoring

You must complete all questions in the paper or papers you sit.

To pass the exam, you need a mark of at least 50% in all subsections of the exam.

Paper 1	Pharmaceutical chemistry 50% Pharmacology and physiology 50%
Paper 2	Pharmaceutics 50% Therapeutics 50%

Here is the Test 2 Paper 2

Section 1 = 30 Questions

Section 2 = 70 Questions

Section 1 The elimination half-life of penicillin G is approximately 0.5 hours. Thus when administered IV every six hours

Half the administered dose will be eliminated in the urine at one hour

Little accumulation of penicillin in the body will occur after repeated administration

Each dose will only act for half an hour

It will take an hour for each dose to be eliminated

All of the administered dose will be metabolized one hour after taking the dose

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following insulin preparations has a duration of action of less than 12 hours?

Insulin injection B.P. (neutral insulin)

Insulin zinc suspension

Crystalline insulin zinc suspension

Protamine zinc insulin (isophane insulin)

Insulin glargine

Correct! Wrong!

After initial immunisation with tetanus toxoid, booster injections should be given every

Year

Two years

Three years

Five years

Ten years

Correct! Wrong!

The Rideal-Walker test is used to measure the

Ppresence of bacteria in eye drops

Sporulation rate of bacteria

Germicidal efficiency of disinfectants

Multiplication rate of bacteria

Viral contamination in injections

Correct! Wrong!

Fluphenazine dodecanoate is administered:

Orally

Intravenously

Intramuscularly

By topical application

Subcutaneously

Correct! Wrong!

In some situations there may NOT be an obvious relationship between the intensity of the pharmacological response of a drug and the plasma concentration of that drug because:

The drug may be slowly absorbed

The drug irreversibly interacts with the receptor

Pharmacological response is related to the dose

The drug may be metabolised quickly

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT? Sublingual drug administration is suitable for drugs that:

Have a high molecular weight

Have high lipid solubility

Undergo presystemic metabolism in the liver

Are non-ionic

Correct! Wrong!

What is meant by the term "steady state" in relation to the plasma levels of a drug?

Where the rate of drug administration equals the rate of drug elimination

Where the dosing interval of the drug remains constant

Where the concentration of drug in the plasma exceeds the minimum effective (or minimum inhibitory) concentration for the particular drug

The period after therapeutically effective levels have been reached

Where protein binding of a drug has come to equilibrium

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following suppository bases is immiscible with body fluids?

Gelatin

Polyethylene glycol

Glycerinated gelatin

Cocoa butter

Macrogol base

Correct! Wrong!

Given that: (i) ascorbic acid (Vitamin C), in an aqueous mixture decomposes by first order kinetics and (ii) the half-life of ascorbic acid in this mixture at shelf temperature is 8 months, What is the acceptable shelf-life of ascorbic acid in aqueous solution assuming that it is unacceptable when its initial concentration is reduced by 1/8?

0.2 month

0.5 month

1.5 months

3.0 months

4.0 months

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following statements about capsules is NOT true?

Liquids can be filled into capsules made from soft or hard gelatine

Capsules should be stored in areas of low humidity

In general, increasing the packing density results in a decrease in dissolution rate

In general, the bioavailability of a powdered drug from a hard gelatine capsule is less than that of the same drug in a compressed tablet

Soft gelatine capsules may have an antifungal preservative added to the capsule shell

Correct! Wrong!

A suitable method for the sterilisation of a solution of a thermolabile drug for ophthalmic use is

Heating with a bactericide at 100 °C for 30 min

Aseptic filtration through a membrane filter of 4 micron pore size

Autoclaving at 121 °C for 15 min

Aseptic filtration through a membrane filter of 0.2 micron pore size

Heating at 60 °C for 15 min

Correct! Wrong!

A drug active against methicillin-resistant staphylococcal strain is:

Gentamicin

Cephalothin

Erythromycin

Vancomycin

Tetracycline

Correct! Wrong!

Stearyl alcohol, cetyl alcohol, cholesterol and other related compounds are used as

Solvents for steroidal drug prescriptions

Preservatives in small volume parenteral preparations

Primary emulsifiers for oil in water preparations

Stabilisers in emulsion formulations

Surfactants for topical preparations

Correct! Wrong!

Cocaine has two ester bonds that hydrolyse to produce either benzoylecgonine or ecgonine methyl ester. At 40 °C and pH 7.25, cocaine has a half-life of 5 h. If the total extent of degradation is not allowed to be more than 10% what would the shelf-life be for cocaine under those conditions?

0.76 h

1.52 h

3.0 h

7.5 h

Correct! Wrong!

Certain tablets contain micronised drug particles because

Coarse particles irritate the gastrointestinal tract

They have higher bioavailability

Tablets prepared from this form disintegrate more rapidly

They are intended to act locally

They enhance pinocytosis

Correct! Wrong!

Surface-active agents are included in some tablets to

Increase the bulk of the tablet

Make the tablet easier to swallow

Reduce the disintegration rate of the drug

Improve the flow properties of the granules

Increase the dissolution rate of the drug

Correct! Wrong!

Morphine in a 70 kg patient taking 20 mg sustained-release capsules twice daily was found to have a steady-state concentration of 4 ng/mL. Assuming a bioavailability of 25%, the clearance of morphine from this patient was

30 L/h

52 L/h

104 L/h

208 L/h

Correct! Wrong!

Particle size and crystal structure are generally important factors in bioavailability from oral dosage forms when:

The drug is relatively insoluble in water (less than 1%)

The molecular weight of the drug is high (exceeds 1000)

The drug is administered as a solution

The characteristics of the drug are such that it is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract

It is a racemic mixture of isomers

Correct! Wrong!

A prescription calls for 0.1% chlorhexidine hydrochloride in an oil-in-water emulsion cream base. Which ONE of the following is the MOST suitable emulgent for the preparation of the base?

Sodium lauryl sulphate

Wool alcohols

Cetrimide

Sodium stearate

Calcium oleate

Correct! Wrong!

Total parenteral nutrition fluids should be stored

Between 2 °C and 8 °C

In the freezing compartment

In a cool place

Between 15 °C and 25 °C

At 37.5 °C

Correct! Wrong!

Chalk 1.5 g Light kaolin 2.5 g Alum 10 mg Concentrated chloroform water 0.25 mL Purified water 10 mL The inclusion of the alum in the above formulation is to

Flocculate the kaolin

Peptise the chalk

Act as a preservative

Act as an astringent

Act as a chelating agent

Correct! Wrong!

Dosage adjustment in patients with renal impairment can be based on:

Urine volume (24 hour)

Glucose level in urine

Serum albumin concentration

Specific gravity of urine

Serum creatinine concentration

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following drugs is NOT used sublingually?

Glyceryl trinitrate

Isosorbide nitrate

Ergotamine tartrate

Ergometrine maleate

Correct! Wrong!

Psyllium is MOST likely to be used to manage the side effect of which medication?

Piroxicam

Metoclopramide

Amitriptyline

Dexamethasone

Zinc sulphate

Correct! Wrong!

A soap can be formed by a reaction between:

An alcohol and an organic (fatty) acid

A phenol and an inorganic acid (such as sulphuric)

An inorganic base and an inorganic acid

An inorganic base and an organic acid

An organic base and an inorganic acid

Correct! Wrong!

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate achieves its therapeutic effect by acting as an exchange resin. Which ONE of the following ions is exchanged with sodium?

Potassium

Phosphorus

Calcium

Chloride

Lithium

Correct! Wrong!

The elimination half-life for ranitidine is approximately 2 hours. What percentage of this drug would be eliminated from the body 4 hours after an intravenous (IV) bolus dose?

12.5%

25%

50%

75%

87.5%

Correct! Wrong!

The antiarrythmic agent, lignocaine, is unsuitable for oral administration because it:

Is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract

Is metabolised rapidly in the liver to inactive compounds

Causes nausea and vomiting

Is decomposed by gastric acid

Binds to mucoproteins in the intestine

Correct! Wrong!

Chlorocresol is used as a preservative in oil-in-water creams at a percentage concentration of

0.001

0.01

0.1

0.5

1.0

Correct! Wrong!

The KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences) Exam Tests 2 Paper 2 Section 1

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Pharmaceutics Passing Score 50% FAIL

Results

Paper 2 Section 1 Pharmaceutics Passing Score 50% Pass

Section 2 The usual starting dose for venlafaxine is

37.5 mg daily

150 mg daily

75 mg daily

300 mg at night

30 mg twice daily

Correct! Wrong!

The most common side effect(s) associated with ketoconazole is/are

Fever and abnormal kidney function

Hypersensitivity reactions

Gastrointestinal disturbances and headache

Gastrointestinal disturbances

Headache

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following statements apply when considering oestradiol nasal spray EXCEPT:

It is as effective as oestradiol tablets and patches for the relief of postmenopausal symptoms

Administration via the nasal mucosa avoids the first pass effect, allowing a smaller dose of oestrogen to be used

Local effects such as nosebleeds, sneezing and rhinorrhea

Should be used at the same time each day

Is effective as a contraceptive in the peri-menopause period

Correct! Wrong!

In the management of gout, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

Allopurinol should not be used to treat acute attacks

Thiazide diuretics can precipitate gout

Probenecid should be avoided in patients with severe renal impairment

Aspirin is a suitable medication for an acute attack

A common side-effect of colchicine is constipation

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following represents the highest concentration?

10 mg/mL

100 parts per million

1 in 20,000

0.01 mg/mL

1 mg/L

Correct! Wrong!

Toxic effects of the tricyclic antidepressants include all of the following EXCEPT:

Sedation

Electrocardiographic abnormalities

Retinal degeneration

Blurred vision

Urinary retention

Correct! Wrong!

The maximum recommended dose of acarbose is:

100 mg

450 mg

600 mg

750 mg

900 mg

Correct! Wrong!

Paraffin is what type of laxative?

Stimulant

Bulk-forming

Surfactant

Osmotic

Lubricant

Correct! Wrong!

A woman brings the following prescription to the pharmacy after visiting the oncologist: Sucralfate 1 g 8 tablets Sorbitol 70% 40 mL Water qs ad 120 mL Sig: swish and expectorate 10 mL q 4h How much sucralfate is in 10 mL of this product?

66.7 mg

500 mg

0.667 g

1.0 g

6.7 g

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following statements regarding black cohosh are true EXCEPT:

Oestrogenic effects

Elevation of liver enzymes

Minimises hot flushes

The active constituent is oestrogen

Has positive effects on vaginal epithelium

Correct! Wrong!

Over the counter aspirin-containing preparations are generally not recommended for children under the age of 16 years because of the risk of

Cross sensitivity with peanut allergy

Skin rashes

Raynaud's syndrome

Reye's syndrome

Anaphylaxis

Correct! Wrong!

Patients given monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) should avoid matured cheese in their diet because substances are present in cheese that:

Interfere with the metabolism of MAOI

Have MAOI activity

Release noradrenaline

Release histamine

Prevent the absorption of MAOI

Correct! Wrong!

Clinically significant drug interactions occur between warfarin and

Sodium valproate

Paroxetine

Omeprazole

Fluconazole

Gentaminicin

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is NOT an osmotic laxative?

Lactulose

Macrogol

Magnesium sulphate

Sorbitol

Bisacodyl

Correct! Wrong!

What needle size has the smallest diameter?

28 gauge

25 gauge

22 gauge

19 gauge

18 gauge

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following statements about alcoholic and aqueous echinacea extracts does NOT apply? They:

Have in vitro antiviral activity

May enhance immunosuppressive therapy

Are stated to possess vasodilator properties

Have been used for boils, carbuncles and abscesses

Have been used for nasopharangeal catarrh

Correct! Wrong!

The anthracycline group of antineoplastic drugs (eg doxorubicin, epirubicin, daunorubicin) are associated with which ONE of the following groups of adverse effects?

Neurotoxicity, constipation, alopecia

Ototoxicity, renal impairment, alopecia

Cardiotoxicity, tissue necrosis if extravasated, nausea and vomiting

Renal toxicity, hepatotoxicity, oral ulceration

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is a potential common problem with the use of fluoxetine?

Agranulocytosis

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Inhibition of hepatic metabolism of other drugs

Antioestrogenic effects

Hypertension

Correct! Wrong!

When determining the appropriate dosage of frusemide for an individual patient, it is most appropriate to consider

The liver function of the patient

The patient's current frusemide dose

Both the liver function of the patient and the patient's current frusemide dose

The renal function of the patient

Both the renal function of the patient and the patient's current frusemide dose

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is TRUE?

Zanamivir should not be used in pregnancy

Zanamivir should be used in all patients with asthma who get the flu

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease patients who get the flu are advised to take zanamivir as soon as possible

Gastrointestinal reactions to zanamivir are of major significance

Zanamivir is active against Haemophilus influenzae

Correct! Wrong!

Which treatment course with gentamicin is more likely to cause nephrotoxicity?

1 mg/kg three times a day for 14 days

1 mg/kg twice a day for 10 days

3 mg/kg twice a day for 5 days

5 mg/kg once a day for 5 days

7 mg/kg once a day for 3 days

Correct! Wrong!

SULFACETAMIDE EYE-DROPS Sulphacetamide sodium 10 g Sodium metabisulphite 0.1 g Disodium edetate 0.05 g Phenylmercuric nitrate 0.002 g Water for injections to 100 mL The phenylmercuric nitrate is available as a sterile aqueous solution containing 3 mg in 10 mL. The volume of this solution required to prepare 15 mL of the above formula is:

0.3 mL

1.0 mL

1.5 mL

5.0 mL

10.0 mL

Correct! Wrong!

Clotrimazole is available in pessary form to treat vaginal candidiasis. The correct dose is:

500 mg as a single dose at bedtime

100 mg daily at bedtime for 10 days

500 mg daily at bedtime for 3 days

100 mg daily at bedtime for 14 days

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following drugs may induce thyrotoxicosis?

Lithium

Carbimazole

Amiodarone

Phenytoin

Propranolol

Correct! Wrong!

Moclobemide is a reversible inhibitor of the enzyme monoamine oxidase. The frequency and severity of food and drug interactions with the traditional irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitors is significantly reduced with this drug. However, moclobemide should NEVER be prescribed in combination with:

Ranitidine

Amoxycillin

Nitrazepam

Pethidine

Frusemide

Correct! Wrong!

If a patient has been ordered salbutamol aerosol and beclomethasone aerosol, both to be inhaled four times a day, the patient should inhale the beclomethasone:

10 minutes after salbutamol

Immediately after salbutamol

10 minutes before salbutamol

Immediately before salbutamol

At any convenient time

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following drugs would NOT increase serum theophylline levels?

Erythromycin

Omeprazole

Ciprofloxacin

Cimetidine

Correct! Wrong!

Pharmacological strategies used to treat drug addiction include

Disulfiram to treat heroin dependence

Acamprosate to treat alcoholism in abstinent patients

Benzodiazepine to treat the depression apparent during withdrawal

Opioid antagonists such as methadone to treat opioid dependence

Correct! Wrong!

Rachel, a female customer, has a prescription for aciclovir for shingles (which started 2 days ago). She is uncertain about filling it due to the cost. Based on the known effectiveness for herpes zoster, which ONE of the following should the pharmacist discuss with Rachel? Aciclovir

Will not be effective because more than 24 hours has passed

Will prevent acute herpes zoster-related pain

Needs to be taken 3 times a day for 7 days

Reduces acute pain and progression of the rash

Usually controls the pain without the need for analgesics

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following combinations of drugs has been shown to prolong the QT interval?

Loratadine and roxithromycin

Promethazine and roxithromycin

Erythromycin and haloperidol

Fexofenadine and doxycycline

Cetirizine and doxycycline

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following suggested doses would NOT be appropriate for an adult?

Frusemide 80 mg bd

Perindopril 24 mg daily

Simvastatin 40 mg night

Doxepin 75 mg nocte

Correct! Wrong!

A solution with a concentration of 0.05 per cent may also be described as containing

1 part in 100 parts

1 part in 200 parts

1 part in 500 parts

1 part in 2000 parts

1 part in 5000 parts

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is NOT true? Aspirin

May interact with coumarin anticoagulants

May interact with oral hypoglycaemic agents

Can stimulate respiration

May interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors

May induce asthma

Correct! Wrong!

Following initial successful use of aerosol bronchodilators, a subsequent increase in requirement may be due to any of the following EXCEPT:

Worsening of asthma

Upper respiratory tract infection

Resistance to the smooth muscle relaxant effects of the bronchodilator

Incorrect technique in administering the aerosol

Recent contact with allergens

Correct! Wrong!

How much of a 10% injection of a drug is required to make 100 mL of a mixture containing 7.5 mg in 2.5 mL?

0.03 mL

0.3 mL

3 mL

5 mL

30 mL

Correct! Wrong!

The MOST common adverse effect of raloxifene is

Irregular uterine bleeding

Rash and allergic reactions

Leg cramps

Nausea and gastrointestinal upset

Breast tenderness

Correct! Wrong!

A common side effect of minocycline is

Inhibition of salivary secretion

Giddiness

Bradycardia

Rhinitis

Ataxia

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is a recommended treatment option for severe pain due to acute herpes zoster?

Topical steroids

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

Topical capsaicin

Parenteral opioid

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the management of drug therapy in the elderly?

Prochloperazine rarely improves dizziness but instead often produces gait disorders

Anticholinergic agents should generally be avoided

Tricyclic antidepressive agents should not be prescribed as nocturnal sedatives unless associated with depressive illness

Allopurinol is the drug of choice in acute gout

Ranitidine is a safer alternative to cimetidine for dyspepsia

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following drugs does NOT have a place in the acute treatment of migraine?

Dihydroergotamine

Methysergide

Zolmitriptan

Sumatriptan

Aspirin

Correct! Wrong!

A patient receiving tranylcypromine should avoid:

Tomatoes

White bread

Cheese

Milk

Fresh fruit

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following drugs is used to treat vertigo?

Haloperidol

Metoclopramide

Prochlorperazine

Selegilene

Carbamazepine

Correct! Wrong!

Drug-induced agranulocytosis refers to

A reduction in the level of circulating polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A reduction in the level of circulating lymphocytes

Increased levels of circulating non-functional leukocytes

Total suppression of bone marrow activity

Increased levels of circulating erythrocytes

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following agents represent an approved OTC treatment for acne vulgaris EXCEPT:

Salicylic acid

Sulfur

Resorcinol and sulfur

Hydrocortisone

Benzoyl peroxide

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following drugs may be administered to a patient with a known sulfonamide allergy?

Cotrimoxazole

Sulphacetamide

Sulphasalazine

Celecoxib

Ciprofloxacin

Correct! Wrong!

A woman has a prescription for 32 mmol/day KCl orally. The pharmacy has 600 mg KCl controlled-release tablets. How many tablets does she need to take each day to provide this dose? [Mol Wt KCl: 74.5]

Two tablets

Three tablets

Four tablets

Five tablets

Six tablets

Correct! Wrong!

The normal sublingual dose of glyceryl trinitrate is within the range of

10 - 50 μg

0.5 - 1 mg

5 - 10 mg

10 - 50 mg

50 - 100 mg

Correct! Wrong!

After surgery, (radical thyroidectomy), what dose of thyroxine would you recommend therapy be initiated on?

150 microgram daily

25 milligram daily

25 microgram daily

None

50 milligram daily

Correct! Wrong!

Norethisterone is used to treat a variety of conditions. Which of the following doses is INCORRECT?

Treatment of endometriosis; 5-10 mg for 4 to 6 months

Contraception; 350 mcg daily

Hormone replacement therapy; orally 1.25 mg for 10 to 14 days for each cycle with daily oestrogen

Hormone replacement therapy; orally 1.25 mg daily with continuous oestrogen

Correct! Wrong!

At what age should an infant be immunised against measles?

1 year old

2 years old

3 years old

4 years old

5 years old

Correct! Wrong!

A patient stabilised on lithium has been diagnosed with mild hypertension. Non-drug intervention has been recommended. Which ONE of the following may cause an elevation of lithium plasma levels with a resultant risk of toxicity?

Moderate exercise

Salt-intake reduction

Smoking cessation

Weight loss

High fibre diet

Correct! Wrong!

A patient who presents while on cephalosporins with fever, malaise and blistering of the skin is likely to have:

Anaphylaxis reaction

Serum sickness reaction

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Correct! Wrong!

A pharmacist is required to produce a litre of a sodium chloride solution of such a strength that when 20 mL is diluted to 100mL with water, the resulting concentration will be 0.9% w/v. The only available sodium chloride is in the form of tablets each containing 2.25 g. The number of tablets required is

4.5

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following antimicrobials is considered safe in pregnant women?

Parenteral tobramycin

Tetracycline

Ciprofloxacin

Nitrofurantoin

Sulphamethoxazole/trimethoprim

Correct! Wrong!

A thiazide diuretic can

Enhance the effect of lithium

Antagonise the action of methyldopa

Antagonise the action of digitalis drugs

Enhance the action of oral hypoglycaemics

Antagonise the action of tricyclic antidepressants

Correct! Wrong!

Absorption of a bile acid-binding resin:

Is increased by food

Is decreased by food

Occurs primarily in the small intestine

Does not occur; the drug is not absorbed

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following effects are LEAST likely to occur with L-DOPA?

Hypertension, nausea, cerebellar effects

Nausea, delusions, dyskinesia

Dyskinesia, drowsiness, on-off phenomenon

Hypotension, depression, anorexia

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following drugs may be used intravenously to treat closed angle glaucoma?

Atropine

Pilocarpine

Guanethidine

Mannitol

Latanoprost

Correct! Wrong!

Sulfonamides are antagonised by:

Streptomycin

Benzylpenicillin

Enoxacin

Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

Tetracycline

Correct! Wrong!

What advice would you give to a patient prescribed benzoyl peroxide gel for acne?

This medication is only to be applied to the face

Use only twice weekly

Avoid contact with the hair

May stain fabrics yellow

Continue use if excess dryness or irritation occurs

Correct! Wrong!

Which type of laxative includes the agent docusate sodium?

Stimulant

Bulk-forming

Surfactant

Osmotic

Lubricant

Correct! Wrong!

What advice would you NOT give to a patient prescribed rifampicin capsules for long term treatment?

This medicine may make your urine a red-orange colour

This medicine may affect tests of liver function

This medicine requires regular monitoring of your blood cell counts

This medicine may darken the colour of your iris

Correct! Wrong!

Once opened, the correct shelf life of an appropriately stored bottle of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) 600 microgram tablets is:

2 weeks

3 weeks

4 weeks

6 weeks

8 weeks

Correct! Wrong!

For a weak base, according to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation: When the pKa of a base is equal to 9 and the ratio of the non- ionised species to the ionised species is 10:1, the pH equals

Correct! Wrong!

Tricyclic antidepressants do NOT interfere with the antihypertensive action of:

Tranylcypromine

Methyldopa

Chlorothiazide

Clonidine

Debrisoquine

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following would NOT be a factor in determining the therapeutic approach to Ms Slocum's breast cancer?

Size of the primary tumour

Lymph node involvement

Metastatic disease

Body surface area

Age of the patient

Correct! Wrong!

In choosing a chemotherapy regimen for Ms Slocum, the doctor should consider all of the following factors EXCEPT:

Emetic potential

Efficacy

Synergism

Availability of controlled-release dosage forms

Route of administration

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following diagnostic tests would be MOST appropriate to determine if Ms Slocum is a candidate for endocrine therapy?

Oestrogen receptor assay

Mammogram

Auxiliary lymph node punch biopsy

Pregnanelone level

T3 levels

Correct! Wrong!

Ms Slocum complains about frequent hot flushes. This is associated with:

Uncontrolled hypertension

Oestrogen therapy

Breast cancer

Radiotherapy

Tamoxifen therapy

Correct! Wrong!

The medication prescribed for Ms Slocum on September 10 acts as:

An oestrogen stimulator

An antiestrogen

A progesterone inhibitor

A hematopoietic agent

A granulocyte colony stimulating factor

Correct! Wrong!

The KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences) Exam Tests 2 Paper 2 Section 2

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Paper 2 Section 2 Pharmaceutics Passing Score 50% Fail

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Paper 2 Section 2 Pharmaceutics Passing Score 50% Pass