KAPS exam sample Material Test 2 Paper 1

This KAPS Quiz contains older questions to help you practise. These questions are no longer used, but they’ll help you understand:

• the types of content covered in each paper of the exam
• how questions might be presented

If you want to practise the sample papers under exam conditions, you’ll need to answer all 100 questions in each paper in 2 hours.

Here is the Test 2 Paper 1

Section 1 = 30 Questions

Section 2 = 70 Questions

Section 1

Trimeprazine belongs to the group of drugs known as:

Alkylamine antihistamines

Phenothiazine antihistamines

Piperidine antihistamines

Monoethanolamine antihistamines

Correct! Wrong!

Techniques involving polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to identify all of the following EXCEPT

Virus types

Actual DNA sequence

Mutations

Bacterial strains

Presence of expressed RNA

Correct! Wrong!

The antibacterial action of a sulphonamide, resulting from its blocking bacterial uptake of p-amino-benzoic acid (PABA) is due to the presence of

A nitrogen containing heterocyclic ring

An ionisable acidic proton

A primary aromatic amino group

A sulfonyl urea substituent

Correct! Wrong!

To have useful antibacterial activity, a sulphonamide molecule must possess or be capable of conversion in the body into which ONE of the following?

An alkylated aromatic amino group

An alkoxy group

A chloride group

A non-substituted aromatic amino group

A free sulphonic group

Correct! Wrong!

When dimercaprol (B.A.L.) is used to treat heavy metal poisoning, its effectiveness is due to the chelate formed being all the following EXCEPT:

Water soluble

Having a large stability constant

Readily excreted

Non-toxic

Readily metabolised

Correct! Wrong!

The chemical bond connecting amino acids in the primary structure of proteins is

A double bond

Hydrolytic in nature

A peptide bond

Between two carbon atoms

Formed by hydrolysis

Correct! Wrong!

Conformational isomerism is described as

A form of optical isomerism

Cis-trans isomerism

Possession of a plane of symmetry so that the (+) and (-) rotation around two asymmetric centres is equal and opposite with a resultant cancellation of optical rotatory properties

The non-identical spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule, resulting from rotation about one or more single bonds

The concept that the similarities in physicochemical properties of atoms, groups, radicals and molecules arise from similar electronic structures

Correct! Wrong!

Which substance yields the largest number of joules per gram?

Carbohydrates

Proteins

Minerals

Fats

Nucleic acids

Correct! Wrong!

The term which describes the time required for the radioactivity of any given amount of a drug to be reduced by 50 percent is:

LD 50

Half-life

Revalue

Retention time

Decay value

Correct! Wrong!

One property that phenytoin, phenobarbitone and rifampicin all have in common is that they

Exhibit nonlinear pharmacokinetics

Are used for the treatment of epilepsy

Are poorly absorbed

Can inhibit hepatic drug metabolism

Can induce hepatic drug metabolism

Correct! Wrong!

The gamma radiation from radioactive vitamin B12 comes from the:

Iodine atoms

Cobalt atoms

Hydrogen atom

Carbon atoms

Phosphorus atoms

Correct! Wrong!

Temazepam, which has the structure below, would MOST probably undergo:

1

I only

III only

I and II only

II and III only

I and III

I. direct conjugation with glucuronic acid II. deesterification III. N-dealkylation

Show hint

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is TRUE for the hypnotic drug temazepam?

This benzodiazepine has a long half-life and thus induces sleep slowly

The drug is conjugated in the liver and the drug has a relatively short half-life

Intravenous temazepam is an anaesthetic

The drug is metabolised to active compounds which have shorter half-lives than the parent drug temazepam

Temazepam is not as effective a hypnotic as diazepam

Correct! Wrong!

The various penicillins that are available differ chemically

In the nature of the acyl side chain

In substituents on the fused ring nucleus

In spatial arrangements of atoms around an asymmetric carbon

In the nature of the original (naturally occurring) nucleus

Only by being different salts

Correct! Wrong!

The chemical class of the compound Below is

1

Sulphonamide

Barbiturate

Phenothiazine derivative

Amine salt

Steroid

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following acids is polyunsaturated?

Oleic

Glutamic

Palmitic

Linolenic

Stearic

Correct! Wrong!

Conformation of organic molecules is MOST commonly determined by which ONE of the following analytical methods?

Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)

Optical rotation

pK determinations

Biological assay

Mass spectrometry

Correct! Wrong!

Oleic acid exists in the cis form. This means:

There also exists an optical isomer of oleic acid

The groups of atoms are formed with double bonds such that there is no rotation and the groups remain on the same side of the molecule

A mirror image of the oleic acid molecule exists

Two groups of atoms are spatially fixed around a double bond so that they are on opposite sides of the molecule

The double bond is part of the ring system

Correct! Wrong!

Quinine sulphate

May be dissolved in water by the addition of a small amount of sulphuric acid to convert it to the more soluble bisulphate

Has a sweet, pleasant taste

Does not cross the placenta

Is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract

Is not affected by light

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following compounds contains either an aldehydic or a ketonic functional group?

Methadone

Bentonite

Ephedrine

Glycerol

Amitriptyline

Correct! Wrong!

Lignocaine HCl can be infused intravenously and remain stable for long enough to have a therapeutic effect because it

Is an ester

Is an acidic drug

Is an amide

Forms an emulsion in the blood

Can exchange chlorides with sodium chloride

Correct! Wrong!

Sodium lauryl sulfate is incompatible with

Cetomacrogo

Sodium stearate

Cetyl alcohol

Polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitan monostearate

Cetrimide

Correct! Wrong!

Sulphonamides differ chemically in substitutions that are made on a fundamental structure common to all. That structure is

Correct! Wrong!

A potential therapeutic use for 1,3-dimethylxanthine is as a(an):

1

Anxiolytic

Bronchodilator

Hypoglycaemic

Hypouricaemic

Anticoagulant

Correct! Wrong!

The metabolism of drugs generally results in

Less acidic compounds

More acidic compounds

Compounds having a higher oil/water partition coefficient

More polar compounds

Compounds with lower aqueous solubility

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following does the chemical structure given above represent?

1

Aldehyde

Amide

Alcohol

Amine

Carboxyl

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Conformers can be distinguished by physical methods such as boiling point

Meso-compounds have chiral carbon atoms and are therefore chiral

The D-prefix means the compound rotates plane of polarized light to the right

Cis- and trans-isomers are diastereomers

All compounds which have a carbon atom with four different ligands are chiral

Correct! Wrong!

Reagent strips impregnated with glucose oxidase, peroxidase, and orthotolidine are dipped into urine or blood as a test for the presence of glucose.

Glucose is oxidised to CO2, which forms carbonic acid, which turns the orthotolidine a blue colour

Glucose oxidase is reduced to glucose reductase, which converts glucose to a blue colour in the presence of orthotolidine and peroxidase

Glucose is oxidised to gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide; then hydrogen peroxide in the presence of peroxidase converts the orthotolidine to a blue substance

Sucrose is oxidised by glucose oxidase to glucose, which is oxidised to glucuronic acid by peroxidase and orthotolidine to form a dye

Glucose oxidase and atmospheric oxygen oxidise glucose to aldehyde, which undergoes a Schiff test reaction with orthotolidine and peroxidase to yield coloured compounds

The reaction(s) that occur are:

Show hint

Correct! Wrong!

An aqueous solution of the sodium salt of an antibacterial sulphonamide would be

Neutral

Strongly basic

Weakly acidic

Weakly basic

Strongly acidic

Correct! Wrong!

Glimepiride exerts its hypoglycaemic action by

Causing a direct uptake of glucose by muscle cells

Increasing the metabolism of glucose

Stimulating insulin release from the pancreas

Causing catalytic breakdown of glucose

Blocking the direct uptake of glucose by muscle cells

Correct! Wrong!

The KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences) Exam Tests 2 Paper 1 Section 1

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Pharmaceutical Chemistry Passing Score 50% FAIL

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Pharmaceutical Chemistry Passing Score 50% PASS

Section 2

Section 1 Completed

Section 2

The therapeutic action of allopurinol in gout is due to its effect of

Increasing uric acid excretion

Stimulating purine breakdown

Non-competitively inhibiting xanthine oxidase

Decreasing hypoxanthine levels

Inhibiting adenosine deaminase

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is LEAST likely to exacerbate seizures?

Alcohol

Sleep deprivation

Cigarette smoking

Psychological stress

Watching television

Correct! Wrong!

Atropine

Is more potent than (-)-hyoscyamine

Is an antidote for anticholinesterase drugs

Is a quaternary amine

May cause constriction of the pupil of the eye

May cause diarrhoea

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is associated with gingival hyperplasia after long-term treatment?

Irbesartan

Theophylline

Hydrochlorothiazide

Propranolol

Nifedipine

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

Arteries have thinner smooth muscle layers than veins

Veins generally carry oxygenated blood

Capillary walls have an elastic layer

The pressure inside a vein is less than in an artery

Capillaries provide the greatest resistance to blood flow

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following statements about warfarin are correct EXCEPT for:

It resembles vitamin K in structure

It prevents the coagulation of blood in vitro

It has a delay in onset and reversal of action

It prevents synthesis of coagulation factors

Correct! Wrong!

Parathyroid hormone has which ONE of the following effects?

Increased mobilization of calcium from bone

Decreased active absorption of calcium from the small intestine

Decreased renal tubular reabsorption of calcium

Decreased resorption of phosphate from bone

Decreased excretion of phosphate

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is NOT recognized as a central neurotransmitter?

Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT)

Noradrenaline

Dopamine

Cyclic adenosine phosphate (cAMP)

Acetylcholine

Correct! Wrong!

Levodopa is often the drug of choice in the treatment of parkinsonism. The rationale for the use of this drug is based upon which of the following?

A deficiency of noradrenaline in the subcortical regions of the brain

Dopamine does not readily pass the blood-brain barrier

Tyrosine hydroxylase is a rate-limiting enzyme

Peripheral nerves are deficient in methylating enzyme

Dopamine excess occurs in Parkinson's disease

Correct! Wrong!

Acne vulgaris:

Is usually the result of blocked sweat glands

Is associated with the growth of Proprionibacterium acnes

Results in scarring where the lesions are occluded

Involves decreased differentiation of epithelial cells

Is not affected by androgen receptor activation

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is predominately excreted as an unchanged drug

Propoxyphene

Phenytoin

Acamprosate calcium

Codeine

Enalapril

Correct! Wrong!

The term "pure opioid antagonist" most appropriately applies to which ONE of the following?

Flumazenil

Tramadol

Hydromorphone

Naloxone

Buprenorphine

Correct! Wrong!

The doses of clomiphene citrate, which is used in the treatment of infertility, should be taken on which of the following days of the menstrual cycle?

0-5

5-9

10-14

20-24

24-28

Correct! Wrong!

What is the principal way that glyceryl trinitrate relieves the symptoms of angina pectoris?

Slows heart rate

Reduces after-load

Dilates venous capacitance vessels

Constricts arterioles

Dilates major peripheral arteries

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following medicines is an alternative to aminoglycosides for antibiotic prophylaxis in urological surgery?

Ticarcillin

Amoxycillin

Erythromycin

Cefoxitin

Metronidazole

Correct! Wrong!

The conjugation of bilirubin occurs mainly in which ONE of the following?

Erythrocyte

Intestine

Liver

Reticuloendothelial system

Kidney

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following statements about dose and response is CORRECT?

Loop diuretics have a dose response curve that reaches a maximum after a few increments of dose

Thiazide diuretics have a steep and prolonged dose response curve

If one drug has greater therapeutic efficacy than another then it is more potent

If one drug is more potent than another drug then it can achieve a therapeutic effect of greater magnitude

The therapeutic index is the maximum tolerated dose divided by the minimum effective dose

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT with respect to congestive heart failure (CHF)?

The most common causes of systolic dysfunction in CHF are ischaemic heart disease and hypertension

The primary abnormality in systolic heart failure is an impairment of left ventricular function leading to increased cardiac output

Compensatory responses are beneficial in development and subsequent progression of CHF

ACE-I dose escalation is based on symptomatic improvement

Loop diuretics improve symptoms and survival in CHF patients

Correct! Wrong!

The cause of death in acute paracetamol overdose is due to the accumulation of toxic metabolites resulting in:

Hepatic necrosis

Cholestatic jaundice

Acute renal failure

Cirrhosis

Cardiomyopathy

Correct! Wrong!

Cyproheptadine can BEST be classified pharmacologically as a(an):

Cholinergic agent

Anti-serotonin agent

Prostaglandin

Anti-prostaglandin agent

Histaminic agent

Correct! Wrong!

ß-adrenergic agonists exert an inotropic effect on the myocardium because they:

Increase the conversion of glycogen to glucose

Activate lipases

Promote conversion of phosphorylase "a" to phosphorylase "b"

Decrease the levels of phosphodiesterases

Increase intracellular levels of calcium

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following has the HIGHEST incidence in young women?

Gout

Lupus erythematosus

Ankylosing spondylitis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteoarthritis

Correct! Wrong!

In regard to urinary tract infections (UTIs) the following statements are true EXCEPT for:

Coagulase negative staphylococci are a common cause of uncomplicated UTIs

The finding of hyaline casts in urine is indicative of a UTI

The most common bacteria in uncomplicated urinary tract infections is E.coli

Onset is usually sudden, typically with frequency, urgency and burning or painful voiding of small volumes of urine

95 % of urinary tract infections occur when bacteria ascend the urethra to the bladder

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is the major determinant of myocardial oxygen consumption?

Systolic blood pressure

Diastolic blood pressure

Cardiac output

Blood volume

Myocardial fibre tension

Correct! Wrong!

Tinnitus, headache, nausea, and sweating are symptoms of which ONE of the following?

Aspirin hypersensitivity

Paracetamol toxicity

Ibuprofen toxicity

Salicylate toxicity

Paracetamol hypersensitivity

Correct! Wrong!

Why is allopurinol used for the treatment of gout?

It increased the renal excretion of uric acid

It inhibits the formation of uric acid

As an anti-inflammatory mechanism

It inhibits prostaglandin synthesis

It alters the sensitivity of pain receptors

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following steroids has markedly different physiological properties to the other four?

Norethisterone

Levonorgestrel

Mestranol

Nandrolone

Megestrol

Correct! Wrong!

Of the following agents, the one which possesses the greatest degree of antihistaminic action is

Diazepam

Citalopram

Doxepin

Chlordiazepoxide

Oxazepam

The reaction(s) that occur are:

Show hint

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is NOT a side effect of amitriptyline?

Blurred vision

Diarrhoea

Dry mouth

Urinary retention

Tachycardia

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following antiepileptic drugs has activity against both generalised tonic-clonic seizures and generalised absence seizures?

Phenytoin

Ethosuximide

Vigabatrin

Valproic acid

Carbamazepine

Correct! Wrong!

Mebendazole, a benzimidazole derivative used for the treatment of worm infestations, functions by

Inhibiting worm metabolism

Inhibiting worm reproduction

Weakening the worms to enable ease of flushing by the intestine

Blocking the absorption of nutrients

Paralysis of the worm, detaching them from the host

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following describes a person with normal thyroid function?

Myxoedematous

Basal

Euthyroid

Hypothyroid

Hyperthyroid

Correct! Wrong!

The pharmacological effects of sumatriptan arise from its ability to:

Antagonise the actions of serotonin

Mimic the actions of serotonin

Block the effects of dopamine

Constrict inflamed and dilated cranial blood vessels

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following parasites CANNOT infect both animals and man?

Human crab lice (Phthirus pubis)

Dog roundworm (Toxocara canis)

Scabies mite (Sarcoptes scabiei)

Beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata)

Hydatid tapeworm (Echinococcus granulosus)

Correct! Wrong!

What is the range for the daily recommended allowance of calcium for women?

300 - 500 mg

500 - 700 mg

700 - 900 mg

1000 - 1500 mg

1500 - 2000 mg

Correct! Wrong!

Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic similar to clozapine, but unlike clozapine it does have significant antagonist activity at which one of the following receptors?

5-hydroxytryptamine

Dopamine d2

Muscarinic acetylcholine

Histamine H1

Alpha-1 adreno

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

Ipratropium bromide is of no benefit in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Salmeterol may assist patients with COPD

Ipratopium bromide may cause hyperkalaeamia

Salmeterol may cause hyperkalaemaia

Salmeterol is not likely to affect bone density

Correct! Wrong!

Chronic iodine deficiency during adult life results in which ONE of the following conditions?

Cretinism

Myxoedema

Toxic adenoma of the thyroid

Primary thyrotoxicosis

Hyperthyroidism

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is NOT a feature of psoriasis?

Increased cell turnover

Abnormal scaling

Inflammation

Increased skin thickness

Granulomatous lesions

Correct! Wrong!

Phenytoin:

Plasma t½ is the same at all plasma phenytoin concentrations

Is subject only to first order kinetics

Can increase hepatic drug metabolism

Activity is not affected by kidney function

Correct! Wrong!

Symptoms of atropine poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:

Dry mouth, blurred vision

Tachycardia

Miosis

Hot dry skin

Correct! Wrong!

Ketorolac:

Is a non-steroidal anti-inflammmatory drug administered intramuscularly to control post-surgical pain

Is an anti-depressant with minimal anticholinergic properties

Can be used in patients with active peptic ulcers

Can cause CNS and respiratory depression

Is commonly used in the elderly and young patients with impaired renal function

Correct! Wrong!

Immediate or anaphylactic hypersensitivity:

May occur after prolonged exposure to an antigenic material

Is caused by direct contact with the noxious material

Does not involve antibody production

Involves IgE antibody production

Effects are always generalised and produce anaphylactic shock

Correct! Wrong!

Cough receptors are present in which ONE of the following?

Cerebellum

Nasopharynx

Pharynx

Medulla

Epithelial lining of the tracheobronchial tree

Correct! Wrong!

Each of the following is a major determinant of myocardial oxygen demand EXCEPT for:

Heart rate

Myocardial contractility

Coronary blood flow

Left ventricular volume

Myocardial wall tension

Correct! Wrong!

Miosis is:

Dilation of the pupil

Constriction of the pupil

Nearsightedness

Intolerance to light

A blind spot in the vision

Correct! Wrong!

In which ONE of the following drugs is the pharmacological activity associated with optical isomers?

Warfarin

Carbamazepine

Heparin

Acetylcholine

Phenytoin

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following eye drops causes rapid mydriasis and has a duration effect of only 2 to 3 hours?

Physostigmine 0.5%

Homatropine 1%

Timolol 0.5%

Phospholine iodine 0.125%

Adrenaline eye drops 1%

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following statements concerning fats and carbohydrates is MOST appropriate? Fats and carbohydrates:

Differ in that fats contain more oxygen than carbon

Are alike because they contain the same amount of nitrogen

Are both changed into fatty acids during digestion

Are alike because they both release energy in the cells

Are alike because neither can be stored

Correct! Wrong!

Emphysema:

Is usually the result of a congenital deficiency in α1-antitrypsin

Is characterised by abnormal enlargement of alveoli

Is always accompanied by chronic bronchitis

Is associated with an increase in elastic recoil

Is associated with impaired inspiration rather than expiration

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following statements regarding tyramine are true EXCEPT

It is a direct acting sympathomimetic amine

It releases noradrenaline from sympathetic nerve endings

It is potentiated by monoamine oxidase inhibitors

It can cause hypertension in persons treated with monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct! Wrong!

Which type of vitamin is MOST toxic above the tolerable upper limit?

Water soluble

Fat soluble

Vitamin C

Hematopoietic

Energy releasing

Correct! Wrong!

Discarding outdated or improperly stored tetracyclines is especially important because they may:

Lose all potency

Become more likely to cause dental pigmentation

Become insoluble and cannot be absorbed

Change into more toxic forms

Develop an unpleasant odour and taste

Correct! Wrong!

Two drugs may act on the same tissue or organ through independent receptors, resulting in effects in opposite directions. What is this known as?

Physiologic antagonism

Chemical antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Irreversible antagonism

Dispositional antagonism

Correct! Wrong!

Digoxin

Is bound to Na+/K+ATPase in the heart

Potentiates Na+/K+ATPase

Has a prominent effect on the transport of divalent cations

Would be expected to increase the potassium content of the myocardium

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are features of hypoglycaemia EXCEPT for:

Feeling of faintness

Confusion

Disorientation

Sweating

Smell of acetone on breath

Correct! Wrong!

Cardiac glycosides increase the force of contraction by

Stimulating the sodium/potassium pump to lower intracellular sodium levels

Inhibiting the sodium/potassium pump, causing secondary rise in calcium accumulation

Inhibiting cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase to increase intracellular cyclic AMP levels

Increasing the removal of calcium from the cell by the sodium-calcium exchange

Correct! Wrong!

Cephalosporins typically covers all strains of streptococci EXCEPT for:

Streptococcus viridans

Streptococcus faecalis

Alpha haemolytic

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus milleri

Correct! Wrong!

Of the following, which adverse reaction is NOT associated with frusemide?

Hyperuricaria

Tinnitus

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

Hypotension

Metabolic acidosis

Correct! Wrong!

Propranolol could be used in the management of the following conditions EXCEPT for:

Oesophageal varices

Angina pectoris

Cardiac dysrhythmias

Parkinsons disease

Migraine

Correct! Wrong!

Following shock, intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to:

Increase blood flow to poorly perfused tissue

Neutralise lactic acid

Increase plasma pCO2

Depress the increased respiration caused by acidosis

Increase peripheral vasodilation

Correct! Wrong!

The intrinsic activity or efficacy of a drug is

A measure of its potency

Related to its maximal agonist effect

Restricted to describing antagonists

The negative logarithm of the concentration producing half the maximum response

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is a penicillin which is effective in the presence of penicillinase?

Amoxycillin

Flucloxacillin

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

Phenethicillin

Ticarcillin

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following is characterized by excess secretion of thyroid hormone?

Addison's disease

Gilbert's syndrome

Grave's disease

Werner's syndrome

Wilson's disease

Correct! Wrong!

The pain associated with angina pectoris is caused by which ONE of the following?

Spasm of the aorta

Electrolyte imbalance on the myocardial surface

Ventricular tachycardia

Aortic stenosis

Ischaemia of some area of the myocardium

Correct! Wrong!

Simvastatin is effective in lowering:

1

LDL cholesterol

HDL cholesterol

LDL cholesterol and plasma triglycerides

Plasma triglycerides and HDL cholesterol

LDL cholesterol, plasma triglycerides and HDL cholesterol

Correct! Wrong!

Use of the antiarrhythmic prescribed on September 30 is limited because of which ONE of the following side effects?

1

Aplastic anemia

Anorexia

Thrombocytopenia

Irreversible paresthesia

Exacerbation of arrythmia

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following should be regularly monitored for amiodarone toxicity?

1

Prostate specific antigen (PSA

Thyroid function tests (TFT

International normalised ration (INR)

Serum creatinine

Urinary cortisol

Correct! Wrong!

Mr Piper complains of bilateral shoulder and hip muscle pain. Which ONE of the following tests is MOST appropriate to investigate his symptoms?

1

Complete blood count

Liver function tests

Thyroid function tests

Electromyogram

Creatine kinase

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of Mr Piper's medications is MOST likely to be implicated in his muscle pain?

1

Amiodarone

Simvastatin

Flecainide

Ciprofloxacin

Correct! Wrong!

The KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences) Exam Tests 2 Paper 1 Section 2

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Physiology and Pharmacology Passing Score 50%rnrnFAILrn

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Physiology and Pharmacology Passing Score 50%rnrnPASSrn

Section 2 Completed

KAPS Exam Guide