KAPS exam sample Material Test 1 Paper 2

This KAPS Quiz contains older questions to help you practise. These questions are no longer used, but they’ll help you understand:

the types of content covered in each paper of the exam
how questions might be presented

If you want to practise the sample papers under exam conditions, you’ll need to answer all 100 questions in each paper in 2 hours.

KAPS Exam scoring

You must complete all questions in the paper or papers you sit.

To pass the exam, you need a mark of at least 50% in all subsections of the exam.

Paper 1	Pharmaceutical chemistry 50% Pharmacology and physiology 50%
Paper 2	Pharmaceutics 50% Therapeutics 50%

Here is the Test 1 Paper 2

Section 1 = 30 Questions

Section 2 = 70 Questions

Section 1 Small changes in dose may lead to disproportionate increases in blood levels of

phenytoin

warfarin

digoxin

carbamazepine

sodium valproate

Correct! Wrong!

If a fixed dose of a drug that is eliminated by first order kinetics is administered intravenously at regular intervals, the time required to achieve a steady state plasma level depends only on the

dose of the drug

volume of distribution of the drug

elimination half-life of the drug

dosing interval

fraction of dose absorbed (bioavailability)

Correct! Wrong!

A basic principle of drug absorption is that a drug is usually NOT absorbed

unless the pKa is high

unless the surface area is optimal

until it is metabolised

until it is in solution

until it has passed to the colon

Correct! Wrong!

The system which is composed of a liquid dispersed in a liquid is

a foam

an emulsion

a suspension

an aerosol

a gel

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following characteristics is CORRECT for cationic aqueous creams?

They contain anionic surfactant as part of the primary emulsifying system

They contain cationic surfactants as part of the primary emulsifying system

They are incompatible with cations

The stability of the emulsion is increased when mixed with anionic drugs

The activity of the drug is increased when mixed with anionic drugs

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following drugs is NOT absorbed systemically when given by mouth?

Cephalexin

Oxytetracycline

Nystatin

Trimethoprim

Rifampicin

Correct! Wrong!

Occlusive dressings are used clinically with topical corticosteroids to

reduce dermal penetration of the steroid

reduce skin atropy

enhance dermal penetration of the steroid

reduce the incidence of bacterial skin infection

enhance systemic absorption of steroid

Correct! Wrong!

If a drug has a very small volume of distribution (Vd), it is likely that this drug

does not accumulate in various tissues and organs

has a short biological half-life

is not bioavailable

will not be effective

is widely distributed in the body

Correct! Wrong!

The route of drug administration that will give the MOST rapid onset of the pharmacologic effect is

intramuscular injection

sublingual administration

subcutaneous injection

oral administration

rectal administration

Correct! Wrong!

The bioequivalence of two tablets containing an identical amount of the same drug manufactured by different companies is best determined by measuring

their disintegration times

their dissolution times

the serum concentrations of drug after ingestion

the drug content of each tablet

the rate at which each drug is excreted

Correct! Wrong!

Thiopentone is of shorter duration of action than phenobarbitone because thiopentone

is absorbed more slowly from the stomach

has higher lipid solubility

is more rapidly metabolised by the liver

is more rapidly excreted by the kidneys

is more soluble in water

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is NOT administered as a racemic mixture?

Propoxyphene

Ibuprofen

Verapamil

Esomeprazole

Warfarin

Correct! Wrong!

Drugs that demonstrate non-linear pharmacokinetics show which of the following properties?

A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the administered dose increases

The elimination half-life increases as the administered dose is increased

The AUC increases in direct proportion to an increase in the administered dose

Both low and high doses follow first order elimination kinetics

The steady state drug concentration increases in direct proportion to the dosing rate

Correct! Wrong!

It was determined that 95% of an oral 80-mg dose of verapamil was absorbed in a 70 kg test subject. However, because of extensive biotransformation during its first pass through the portal circulation, the bioavailability of verapamil was only 25%. Assuming a liver blood flow of 1500 mL/min, the hepatic clearance of verapamil in this situation was:

60 mL/min

375 mL/min

740 mL/min

1110 mL/min

1425 mL/min

Correct! Wrong!

A new cardiac glycoside has been developed for oral and intravenous (IV) administration. The drug has an elimination half-life of 24 hours and an apparent volume of distribution (Vd) of 3 L/kg. The effective drug concentration in plasma is 1.5 ng/mL. Toxic effects of the drug are observed at drug concentrations above 4 ng/mL. The drug is 75% bioavailable after an oral dose. Calculate an oral maintenance dose to be given once a day for a 65 kg male patient (age 68 years) with congestive heart failure and normal renal function. The aim is to achieve an average plasma concentration of 1.5 ng/mL. The dose should be

0.125 mg

0.180 mg

0.203 mg

0.270 mg

0.333 mg

Correct! Wrong!

Salicylic acid has a pKa of 3.0 and undergoes significant renal tubular reabsorption. In aspirin overdose the renal clearance of salicylic acid will be increased to the greatest extent by

acidification of the urine

alkalinisation of the urine

acidification of the urine plus forced diuresis

alkalinisation of the urine plus forced diuresis

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following drugs has the longest half-life?

Theophylline

Morphine

Verapamil

Amlodipine

Correct! Wrong!

The most common bacterial genus associated with acne vulgaris is

Propionibacterium

Staphylococcus

Streptococcus

Corynebacterium

Bacillus

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following microbes will NOT be covered by clindamycin?

Fusobacterium nucleatum

Peptostreptococcus species

Clostridium difficle

Clostridium septicum

Bacteroides fragilis

Correct! Wrong!

The five antibody classes are

IgA, IgB, IgC, IgD, IgE

IgA ,IgB, IgD, IgG, IgE

IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

IgA, IgC, IgE, IgG, IgM

IgB, IgC, IgD, IgE, IgG

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements is FALSE in regards to the use of combination antiinfective therapy?

Flucloxicillin and cephalexin are combined to treat multi-resistant Staph aureus infection

Combination therapy is used to prevent emergence of resistance to tuberculosis

Gentamicin plus a beta-lactam are combined for synergy when treating enterococcal endocarditis

Empirical treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease involves combination therapy to extend the spectrum of antimicrobial cover

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following regimens is appropriate for managing herpes simplex encephalitis?

Famiciclovir 500 mg q12h PO for 7-10 days

Aciclovir 5 mg/kg IV q8h for >14 days

Valaciclovir 1000 mg tid PO for 7 days

Aciclovir 10 mg/kg IV q8h for >14 days

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are official pharmacopoeial testing procedures for tablets EXCEPT

dissolution

hardness

disintegration

friability

content uniformity

Correct! Wrong!

An example of an osmotic laxative is

sennoside tablets

docusate tablets

psyllium

magnesium sulphate

bisacodyl

Correct! Wrong!

A suspension is NOT a suitable dosage form for what type of injection?

Intra-articular

Intradermal

Intramuscular

Intravenous

Subcutaneous

Correct! Wrong!

Insulin preparations are usually administered by

intradermal injection

intramuscular injection

intravenous bolus

intravenous infusion

subcutaneous injection

Correct! Wrong!

Methylcellulose and similar agents are MOST commonly used in ophthalmic solutions to

increase drop size

increase ocular contact time

reduce inflammation of the eye by their soothing effect

suspend insoluble drugs

reduce drop size

Correct! Wrong!

In which base should hydrocortisone acetate be incorporated to give maximal topical absorption?

Simple Ointment B.P.

White soft paraffin

Cetomacrogol cream aqueous

Wool Alcohols Ointment B.P.

Hydrous Ointment B.P.

Correct! Wrong!

The term "impalpable" refers to a substance that is

bad tasting

not perceptible to the touch

greasy

non-greasy

tasteless

Correct! Wrong!

Sodium metabisulphite is used as

a buffering agent

an antipruritic

an antioxidant

an oxidising agent

a chelating agent

Correct! Wrong!

The KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences) Exam Tests 1 Paper 2 Section 1

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Pharmaceutics Passing Score 50% FAIL

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Pharmaceutics Passing Score 50% Pass

Section 2 Data obtained from two different batches of tablets of a new hypoglycaemic agent undergoing clinical trial revealed that Batch 1 contains 200 mg of the drug and has an absolute bioavailability of 55%. Batch 2 contains 200 mg of the drug and relative to the first batch has a bioavailability of 165% What is the absolute bioavailability of the second batch?

33.33%

61.6%

90.75%

181.5%

300%

Correct! Wrong!

How much ichthammol would be required to be added to a 5% w/w ichthammol in yellow soft paraffin ointment to prepare 200 g of a 17.5% w/w ichthammol in yellow soft paraffin ointment?

12.5 g

13.3 g

20.2 g

26.3 g

33.3 g

Correct! Wrong!

How many grams of chlorbutol are required to make 500 mL of an aqueous solution of such a concentration that 25 mL diluted to 100 mL with water will give a 1:2000 solution?

2.5

1.25

0.1

Correct! Wrong!

Dopamine 200 mg in 500 mL of normal saline at 5 μg/kg/min is ordered for a 70 kg patient. At what rate (mL/min) should the solution be infused to deliver the desired dose of 5 μg/kg/min?

0.35

0.40

0.88

2.0

5.0

Correct! Wrong!

Lignocaine hydrochloride is available for intravenous injection as a 2% solution packed in 5 mL disposable syringes. The dose is 1 mg per kg of body weight by slow intravenous injection. The volume of solution that should be used for a patient weighing 60 kg is

1.2 mL

2.5 mL

3.0 mL

4.0 mL

6.0 mL

Correct! Wrong!

A solution with a concentration of 0.0125 % may also be described as containing

1 part in 80 parts

1 part in 800 parts

1 part in 8000 parts

1 part in 12 500 parts

1 part in 25 000 parts

Correct! Wrong!

Lugol's Solution contains 5% of iodine, and the usual dose of the solution is 0.3 mL three times a day. The amount of iodine contained in the daily dose of the solution is

450 mg

150 mg

45 mg

30 mg

15 mg

Correct! Wrong!

An infusion solution of sodium chloride 0.9% contains a sodium ion concentration of

100 mmol/L

130 mmol/L

150 mmol/L

270 mmol/L

300 mmol/L

Correct! Wrong!

A pharmacist has to prepare an aqueous solution containing 1 g of benzalkonium chloride in 2 L, by diluting a 10% solution. How many mL of water will be required?

190

200

1800

1900

1990

Correct! Wrong!

The normal daily adult oral dose of celecoxib is within the range

1 - 10 mg

15 - 25 mg

30 - 100 mg

200 - 400 mg

0.5 - 1 g

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following β-adrenergic blockers is predominantly renally cleared?

Atenolol

Metoprolol

Oxprenolol

Pindolol

Propranolol

Correct! Wrong!

Dose levels of vancomycin should be reduced in patients suffering from

pulmonary failure

epilepsy

hepatic impairment

heart failure

renal impairment

Correct! Wrong!

The normal adult daily dose of hydrochlorothiazide is within the range

0.5 - 2 mg

2 - 5 mg

5 - 25 mg

50 - 200 mg

0.5 - 1 g

Correct! Wrong!

For ongoing control of seizures phenytoin may be administered

only as a single daily dose

only in three divided daily doses

as a single daily dose or on a when needed basis

as a single daily dose or in three divided daily doses

as a single daily dose or on a when needed basis or in three divided daily

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following drugs should NOT be added to the therapy of a poorly controlled diabetic patient already on maximum doses of metformin and glibenclamide?

Rosiglitazone

Insulin

Acarbose

Repaglinide

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following medicines is NOT safe to use in children under 12 years of age?

Ceftriaxone

Norfloxacin

Imipenem

Azithromycin

Rifampicin

Correct! Wrong!

Naloxone

is an analgesic

causes euphoria

is the drug of choice for the treatment of opiate over-dosage

is a partial agonist for the opiate receptor

is equipotent whether given orally or by injection

Correct! Wrong!

Sodium Chloride 0.9% is a good wound cleansing agent for the following reasons EXCEPT it

is isotonic to body tissue

has no detrimental effect on living tissue

can be used to irrigate body cavities

is economical

has antiseptic properties

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following statements relating to carbamazepine is FALSE?

Hepatic and bone-marrow function must be monitored during treatment with this drug

Patients who are hypersensitive to phenytoin should avoid carbamazepine

Carbamazepine is not excreted in breast milk

It may induce breakthrough bleeding and contraceptive failure in women taking low dose oral contraceptives

Carbamazepine can stimulate ADH release, leading to fluid retention

Correct! Wrong!

Mr Earl, a patient with congestive heart failure, has been taking digoxin 125 mcg/day for one month and has a plasma digoxin concentration of 0.5 mcg/L (The therapeutic range for digoxin in patients with congestive heart failure is 0.5-0.8 mcg/L.) Mr Earl is not showing adequate clinical improvement. The MOST appropriate course of action is to

maintain the current dose for one month and arrange a digoxin assay when Mr Earl is at steady state concentration

commence potassium chloride treatment to increase myocardial sensitivity to digoxin and arrange a digoxin assay in one month

increase the dose of digoxin to 187.5 mcg/day and arrange a digoxin assay when Mr Earl is at steady state concentration

give a single loading dose of 250mcg digoxin, and maintain the current dose for one month. Then arrange a digoxin assay when Mr Earl is at steady state concentration

Correct! Wrong!

Mood disorders are being more widely managed with anticonvulsants. Which of the following is FALSE with regard to anticonvulsants used in this fashion?

Carbamazepine is useful in the management and prophylaxis of manic episodes

Sodium valproate is a useful treatment for rapid-cycling bipolar mood disorder at doses of 500 – 3000 mg per day

Clonazepam and sodium valproate are both effective for the treatment of depressive episodes

Clonazepam is effective in manic episodes and has advantages over other benzodiazepines because of its long half-life

Patients with bipolar mood disorder can be treated with anticonvulsants either alone or in combination with lithium

Correct! Wrong!

When considering the usefulness of metformin monotherapy for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, relevant patient factors to consider include

sulfonamide allergy

obesity

sulfonamide allergy and fasting blood glucose levels > 13 mmol/L

fasting blood glucose levels > 13 mmol/L and obesity

sulfonamide allergy, fasting blood glucose levels > 13 mmol/L and obesity

Correct! Wrong!

When monitoring anticoagulation with heparin, which of the following does NOT apply?

Monitoring the INR

Observing for signs of bleeding

Following total platelet count

Following prothrombin time

Observing for haematoma

Correct! Wrong!

The Mantoux test uses

diagnostic diphtheria toxin

DPT toxin

mumps skin test antigen

old tuberculin

scarlet fever streptococcus toxin

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is NOT true of methadone?

Detectable levels in breast milk

Can be given parenterally

A narcotic antagonist

Long elimination half-life

Has significant analgesic activity

Correct! Wrong!

Interferons are indicated in which of the following conditions?

Hairy cell leukaemia, lymphoma, breast cancer

Colon cancer, acute lymphocytic leukaemia, ovarian cancer

Hairy cell leukaemia, multiple myeloma, chronic myelogenous leukaemia

Multiple myeloma, renal cell carcinoma, hepatitis C

Multiple myeloma, renal cell carcinoma, hepatitis B

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following compounds is unlikely to contribute to serotonin syndrome?

Sibutramine

Tramadol

Sertraline

Olanzapine

Pethidine

Correct! Wrong!

A 75-year-old male, with carcinoma of the prostate with local metastatasis, would be best treated with which of the following?

Tamsulosin

Spironolactone

Finasteride

Leuprorelin

Fludrocortisone

Correct! Wrong!

Metoclopramide is often given together with oral aspirin for the treatment of acutemigraine attacks. The rationale behind the use of metoclopramide is that it will

slow down the absorption of the analgesic

hasten the absorption of the analgesic

constrict cerebral blood vessels

provide a sedative effect

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following drugs has been associated with interstitial pulmonary fibrosis?

Trimethoprim

Aspirin

Nitrofurantoin

Methysergide

Salbutamol

Correct! Wrong!

Methysergide, when used for the prophylaxis of migraine

suppresses migraine headaches completely in about 75% of patients

can be used uninterrupted for many years

can cause rebound headaches when stopped suddenly

should be started at a dose of 1 mg orally, three to four times daily

Correct! Wrong!

Cationic exchange resins are most commonly used to treat

hyperkalaemia

hyperglycaemia

hypernatraemia

hypokalaemia

hyperchlorhydria

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following procedures should be used to monitor effective enoxaparin doses?

Measure enoxaparin blood levels

Measure the International Normalised Ratio (INR)

Measure platelet count

Measure antifactor Xa

Measure serum creatinine

Correct! Wrong!

The following drugs can cause syndrome of inappropriate anti diuretic hormone (SIADH) EXCEPT

cyclophosphamide

chlorpromazine

carbamazepine

chlorpropamide

captopril

Correct! Wrong!

Chronic phenytoin therapy has been associated with

malabsorption of pyridoxine

development of dry mouth

development of glaucoma

development of gingival hyperplasia

development of atrial arrhythmias

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following properties is NOT true of indomethacin?

May cause headaches

Reduces inflammation

May cause tinnitus

Increases the antihypertensive effect of β-blockers

Is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following antipsychotic agents provides the lowest risk of extrapyramidal side effects?

Olanzepine

Thioridazine

Haloperidol

Thiothixene

Trifluoperazine

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is contraindicated in nursing mothers because it inhibits milk production?

Combined oral contraceptive pill

Phenytoin

Theophylline

Diazepam

Sulphonamides

Correct! Wrong!

A 47-year-old premenopausal female with endometriosis is treated with danazol. Which of the following adverse effects is associated with danazol?

Hypoglycaemia

Correct! Wrong!

The most prevalent side effect of the chronic use of aluminium hydroxide gel is

nausea and vomiting

constipation

flatulence

diarrhoea

gastrointestinal bleeding

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is a common sign of digoxin toxicity?

Skin rashes

Decreased blood pressure

Vomiting

Increased heart rate

Dry mouth

Correct! Wrong!

Sensitisation to sunlight may be produced in a patient being treated with

temazepam

ciprofloxacin

miconazole

spironolactone

mirtazapine

Correct! Wrong!

A common anticholinergic (atropine-like) side-effect of many drugs is

diarrhoea

Tinnitus

Miosis

fever

tachycardia

Correct! Wrong!

The use of pethidine in the management of chronic pain is discouraged because it

cannot be administered orally

is the opioid analgesic most likely to cause dependence

has a toxic metabolite that can accumulate and cause seizures if a patient has compromised renal function

has a long half-life and unpredictable pharmacokinetics

inhibits cytochrome P450 and therefore has the potential to cause drug interactions

Correct! Wrong!

Halothane

has a low anaesthetic potency

is a good analgesic

will depress respiration in anaesthetic concentrations

is likely to cause jaundice

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following has been shown to be teratogenic?

Ketoconazole

Itraconazole

Etretinate

Alendronate

Tolnaftate

Correct! Wrong!

Moclobemide is useful in Parkinson's disease because it inhibits

catechol-O-methyltransferase

monoamine oxidase B

HMG-CoA reductase

dopa decarboxylase

monoamine oxidase A

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following has been shown to cause syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone release (SIADH)?

Diazepam

Lamotrigine

Carbamazepine

Propranolol

Amiloride

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is associated with lethargy, nightmares and cold extremities as side effects?

Diazepam

Theophylline

Hydrochlorothiazide

Propranolol

Phenytoin

Correct! Wrong!

The following medicines have been reported to cause asthma attacks in susceptible people EXCEPT

echinacea

propranolol

diltiazem

royal jelly

pilocarpine

Correct! Wrong!

Amiodarone may cause all of the following EXCEPT

skin discolouration

Nephritis

irreversible liver damage

pulmonary fibrosis

corneal microdeposits

Correct! Wrong!

The following drugs can cause an increase in the plasma concentration of digoxin with increased risk of toxicity EXCEPT

diltiazem

verapamil

phenytoin

spironolactone

itraconazole

Correct! Wrong!

Food containing tyramine should NOT be part of the diet of patients taking which of the following antidepressants?

Amitryptyline

Doxepin

Tranylcypromine

Trimipramine

Nortryptyline

Correct! Wrong!

Theophylline has a very narrow therapeutic index. This drug has severe dose related toxicity (seizures and arrhythmias) which may occur without preceding milder symptoms of toxicity (vomiting and diarrhoea). Theophylline concentrations are raised by a number of commonly used drugs. Three such drugs are

cephalexin, amoxycillin, ranitidine

ranitidine, aspirin, captopril

cimetidine, diazepam, flucloxacillin

erythromycin, cimetidine, nitrazepam

erythromycin, ciprofloxacin, cimetidine

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following compounds may increase the effects of warfarin?

Spironolactone

Tibolone

Irbersartan

Atorvastatin

Ezetimibe

Correct! Wrong!

Which or the following oral antibiotics should not be taken at the same time as oral iron (Fe2+) containing products?

Amoxycillin

Ciprofloxacin

Erythromycin

Fluconazole

Metronidazole

Correct! Wrong!

If a patient stabilised on digoxin is then administered amiodarone

plasma levels of digoxin increase

plasma levels of amiodarone are increased

plasma levels of digoxin decrease

plasma levels of amiodarone are decreased

there is no change in plasma levels of either drug

Correct! Wrong!

The following points should be included in your counselling advice to a person using topical sunscreen agents to prevent sunburn EXCEPT

while sunscreens under optimal conditions may be effective at preventing sunburn, they may be less effective at preventing skin cancer

chemical sunscreens are less effective than avoidance of sun exposure and physical protection

water immersion, sweating and infrequent application can make a 15+ broad spectrum sunscreen less effective

barrier sunscreens are less effective than chemical sunscreens

Correct! Wrong!

The preferred thyroid preparation for maintenance replacement therapy is which of the following drugs?

Desiccated thyroid

Liothyronine

Thyroid stimulating hormone

Levothyroxine

Correct! Wrong!

Single daily doses of simvastatin are best taken at

6 am

Noon

3 pm

6 pm

Bedtime

Correct! Wrong!

When dispensing a prescription for sucralfate the pharmacist should tell the patient that

his stools may become discoloured

he should not take the drug with food or antacids

the drug has no side effects because it is not absorbed

the drug has a disulfiram-like effect

the drug is likely to cause drowsiness

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following anticonvulsants is included in pregnancy Category D?

Lamotrigine

Gabapentin

Phenytoin

Topiramate

Clonazepam

Correct! Wrong!

A patient with a superficial wound asks what time period is recommended between tetanus immunisations?

Please select 2 correct answers

Every eighteen months

Every two years

Every four years

Every five years

Every ten years

Correct! Wrong!

Time to peak effect of salmeterol is

one to three minutes

ten to twenty minutes

one to two hours

three to four hours

approximately twelve hours

Correct! Wrong!

In Parkinson's disease which of the following drugs is contraindicated?

Cephalexin

Haloperidol

Benzhexol

Diazepam

Bromocriptine

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following adverse effects could be seen with hydrochlorothiazide?

Dyspnoea

Seizures

Rash

Hypoglycaemia

Anaemia

Correct! Wrong!

Each Slow-K dosage unit contains 8 mmoL of potassium as potassium chloride. How many mg of potassium chloride are in each Slow-K tablet? [Atomic Weight K = 39, Cl = 35]

296 mg

312 mg

592 mg

740 mg

872 mg

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following agents is MOST similar to hydrochlorothiazide?

Bumetanide

Chlorthalidone

Frusemide

Acetazolamide

Ethacrynic acid

Correct! Wrong!

When captopril is added to Ms Williams’ regimen, there is an increased likelihood of

hypermagnesaemic

hypercalcaemia

hyperglycaemia

hypernatremia

hyperkalaemia

Correct! Wrong!

Captopril is MOST similar in action to

nicorandil

pindolol

lisinopril

irbesartin

verapamil

Correct! Wrong!

The KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences) Exam Tests 1 Paper 2 Section 2

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Pharmaceutics Passing Score 50% FAIL

Result

Paper 2 Section 1 Pharmaceutics Passing Score 50% Pass